How much truth is there to all these lethal dosage "recommendations" tho? Every time I see someone talk about it, it's always a different number. IIRC someone in a bigger thread said you'd need at least half a gram of heroin, someone else went for 1.5g... Doing 3 minutes of Google research right now I found 10mg, 50 mg, 60mg, 200mg and 10 times that for people that have developed a heroin tolerance. Guess it's all about its purity and your tolerance or something. Everyone says fent is 10x stronger than heroin so you would need a tenth of the dose, but how are you supposed to trust that when apparently noone even knows how much heroin will kill you? Weird, innit
I have no experience whatsoever with opioids, but as far as I understand, the following reasons should explain the varying dosages found online.
First, morphine equivalent dosages only apply to opioid naive users because tolerance to any opioid, especially fentanyl and its analogues and even more so the more potent nitazenes, builds up quickly. Anecdotally, nitazene users say that their tolerance builds up in just a few days, such that they may start with a dosage of 1 mg and need 30 mg shortly into continued use to feel an effect. Also, many recreational opioid users are on methadone and buprenorphine.
Another issue is the purity of the compounds that are marketed as opioids. There is not only the purity of the opioid that the supplier synthesizes, but also the fact that it is cut with other substances — they are never sold 100% pure to customers at the end of the chain. How opioids are cut depends on each supplier. Finally, different batches made by a same supplier can vary greatly in purity.
For these reasons, it is impossible to generalize information from self-reports of potency and thus of dosages that lead to overdoses. The only data we can base ourselves on is the published scientific literature on opioids, but one must remember that it doesn't translate to what they are sold. The only way to know is to send a sample to a lab to get it tested.
However, given that fentanyl, its analogues and nitazenes are extremely potent,
extreme precaution must be taken even with cut products. At the end of the day, even if they are "only" 10% pure,
they will cause opioid naive users and those with an insufficient tolerance to overdose.
Theoretically, assuming the following:
1) an opioid naive user takes a nitazene product that is 10% pure
2) nitazenes are at least as potent fentanyl (and up to 2x as potent) when
not administered orally
3) the lowest lethal dose of fentanyl for opioid naive users is 2 mg
then 20 mg of the nitazene product should be the lowest lethal dose.
In practice, this is probably lower — I would expect at least 25-30% purity, but this is a guesstimate that I have no evidence to back up. If this holds, 7-8 mg would be lethal.
Edit: it should be noted that DDMAPh, the 5 drug mixture used in medical aid in dying, calls for 15 grams of morphine. This equates to 150 mg of pure fentanyl; that being said, MAiD concerns severely or terminally ill patients who are already on strong opioids (morphine and/or fentanyl; thus they have a tolerance to it).
