I don't see a point in defining consent as an overcomplicated construct, that results in the presence of multiple meanings of word "consent" and confusions associated with the ambiguity. Why not just tell that although a consent (as an expression of will) may be granted, accepting this consent by the other person is not always ethical or legal? From this perspective, the presence/absence of consent still plays an important role when determining how much unethical/illegal the behavior of the other side is.
Corroborate why you think it is overcomplicated. Occam's razor cuts both ways without substatiation for the need or
ability to simplify. Multidimensionality is pretty basic semantically speaking.
It's not that there are multiple meanings of the word. It is that there are inclusive and exclusionary rules for the word's referents.
Just as we characterize a bird by more than just "having wings" (which would erroneously include bats), so too must we define the multiple materialistic dimensions of a social construct such as consent. The word
bird still refers to only one type of animal. But that one thing has multiple dimensions that characterize what is/is not a bird. This is not overcomplication, this is a logical formula to ensure we are including all the latent cases where our social construct
does apply, while ensuring ubiquitous exclusion of cases where it
does not apply.
Just because you've posited a different way of constructing consent (a "why not" statement) doesn't make it empirically valid. It still lacks premises rooted in material realism.
That's the thing about social constructs. They don't exist anywhere except within the cultural associations in our minds, and thus measuring them directly is impossible. I could associate consent with the action of pouring tea, but without cultural standards for what the construct represents
in reality, everyone around me will be
righteously confused and will ostracize our use of the term outside its tangibly standardized form. We can't just ask people because then people (like us in this conversation) will disagree, adding error variance. So, just because it seems intuitive to you to define it the way you have, doesn't mean it is materially logical. Unearthing the
real-world factors of a latent social construct are necessary to standardize meaning.
Otherwise we are all just running around with our own ideas of words (which people seem to quite enjoy doing to fit their worldview; our intuition is incredibly unreliable in this regard)
Because we can't directly measure the latent material inside one's mind (latent psychological or cultural constructs), we must use measurement of real-world indices (manifest constructs) to do so, and then measure the statistical associations between them to determine that they are A) correlated enough to reflect a shared measurement of the latent construct B) different enough to ensure the way we are measuring them is not accidentally measuring the same dimension. This is why factor analysis is used.
When we see clusters of associated data, we can create models that are then passed through confirmatory hypothesis testing (which I won't get into), to demonstrate that the odds of the dimensions representing an existing latent construct (AKA factor) vs not existing is close to a 0-point difference. Sufficient for material corroboration of a given culture's
standard and real definition of ability to consent.
TL;DR since you asked for simplicity: there is social construct (latent), and then the material dimensions of it (manifest). It's fairly simple.
In our case there are neuroimaging measurements of adolescent brains, measures of cultural & physical safety (e.g., sexual trauma prevalence), and individual will (perhaps a subjective questionairre) which would be X1-X5 which reflect latent dimensions of the construct
F (which I would label "inability to consent") in the model
I don't see a point in defining consent as an overcomplicated construct, that results in the presence of multiple meanings of word "consent" and confusions associated with the ambiguity. Why not just tell that although a consent (as an expression of will) may be granted, accepting this consent by the other person is not always ethical or legal? From this perspective, the presence/absence of consent still plays an important role when determining how much unethical/illegal the behavior of the other side is.
A more simple answer to entertain Occam's razor is: because that still assumes children have agency over their bodies, which they don't, legally and ontologically.
I can only detail why (read above), by abandoning Occam's razor.