TAW122
Emissary of the right to die.
- Aug 30, 2018
- 6,711
It has been said by pro-lifers or commonly used reasoning by pro-lifers are that suicidal people (even those who planned to die) lacked decision making capacity and/or clouded judgment when making their decision to die, but what I don't understand is "why" they say that. By that logic, if it comes to criminals and those who have broken the law and done harmful things to society, then someone could argue that they lack decision making capacity, but clearly that's not the case.
In other words, if a criminal commits a crime, major or minor, he/she is held responsible (accountable) for his/her actions and then sentenced accordingly in almost all cases. Yet if someone makes a mindful, conscious, willful decision (after careful planning and premeditation) to end his/her life, said person is considered 'mentally ill', 'mentally defective', and/or 'not capable of making a decision'. The irony I see is that in both scenarios, the criminal and the mindfully suicidal (not the one who just does it impulsively) both have planned out, premedidated and willfully carried out their actions, but the suicidal is seen as not having decision making capacity and then locked up in a psych ward, but the criminal is seen to be capable of decision making and then sentenced accordingly based on the charges, law(s) broken.
Does anyone know why in both situations, both people make a willful, conscious decision, yet one doesn't get charged but locked up against his/her will, yet the other one (the criminal) assuming he/she is found guilty, and then sentenced to whatever punishment the state metes out? Seems really intellectually disingenuous, hypocritical, and inconsistent. In layman's terms, society is basically saying "If you want to die (even if you planned it out) and we catch you (either you failed and someone intervened or we stopped you before you attempted, we will deem you to not be capable of making decisions and lock you up in a psych hold/psych ward." But! "if you commit a crime willingly, you are capable of knowing right from wrong and making decisions (meaning you chose to do wrong), thus we will sentence you accordingly and then lock you up in jail/prison (dependent of the crime and offense)." To me, my logical and rational mind, it just doesn't make any sense.
Could someone give some insights as to why this inconsistency?
In other words, if a criminal commits a crime, major or minor, he/she is held responsible (accountable) for his/her actions and then sentenced accordingly in almost all cases. Yet if someone makes a mindful, conscious, willful decision (after careful planning and premeditation) to end his/her life, said person is considered 'mentally ill', 'mentally defective', and/or 'not capable of making a decision'. The irony I see is that in both scenarios, the criminal and the mindfully suicidal (not the one who just does it impulsively) both have planned out, premedidated and willfully carried out their actions, but the suicidal is seen as not having decision making capacity and then locked up in a psych ward, but the criminal is seen to be capable of decision making and then sentenced accordingly based on the charges, law(s) broken.
Does anyone know why in both situations, both people make a willful, conscious decision, yet one doesn't get charged but locked up against his/her will, yet the other one (the criminal) assuming he/she is found guilty, and then sentenced to whatever punishment the state metes out? Seems really intellectually disingenuous, hypocritical, and inconsistent. In layman's terms, society is basically saying "If you want to die (even if you planned it out) and we catch you (either you failed and someone intervened or we stopped you before you attempted, we will deem you to not be capable of making decisions and lock you up in a psych hold/psych ward." But! "if you commit a crime willingly, you are capable of knowing right from wrong and making decisions (meaning you chose to do wrong), thus we will sentence you accordingly and then lock you up in jail/prison (dependent of the crime and offense)." To me, my logical and rational mind, it just doesn't make any sense.
Could someone give some insights as to why this inconsistency?