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beseechgod
Student
- Dec 7, 2024
- 139
The PPEH recommends an extremely high dose of benzodiazepines. For xanax 0.5mg, which is what I have, it would be 40 pills. Is there a reason for such a high dose recommendation, aside from including the needs of people with very high benzo tolerance in the protocol? I think most people would only need a fraction of that to achieve sedation effects. For me 1-1.5mg has been enough. I'll take at least 2mg (4 pills), but I wonder if there's any benefit or potentiation to be gained by going much higher?